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Showing posts from May, 2025

What Does It Mean That the LORD Is “Ishi”?

In the Book of the Prophet Hosea, the LORD prophesied that Israel would call Him "Ishi". But, what does this mean? "And it shall be at that day, saith the LORD, that thou shalt call me Ishi; and shalt call me no more Baali." (Hosea 2:16) The first step is to define what the word means. The word  אִישִׁי  ( 'ishi ) literally means "my Man," and is understood as "my Husband." The first impression is that it refers to God saying Israel will call Him "my Husband", which  is  part of it. To understand the passage, we will need to look at the context (Hosea 1–2). At the beginning of the Book, we learn that Hosea and his wife have a child, Jezreel. "[3] So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim; which conceived, and bare him a son. [4] And the LORD said unto him, Call his name Jezreel; for yet a little while, and I will avenge the blood of Jezreel upon the house of Jehu, and will cause to cease the kingdom of the house of Is...

The King James Bible: The Seventh Purification?

A popular argument used by King James onlyists, especially by Ruckmanites and dual inspirationists, is that the King James Version of the Bible is in the seventh purification of Scripture. This argument goes like this: The King James Bible is the seventh English translation, and fits the "purified seven times" of Psalm 12:6-7. Some radical proponents of this position go as far as to say that English is the seventh main language of Bible translation. Additionally, some claim that, of the KJV editions, the 1900 Pure Cambridge Edition is the seventh purification of the KJV. When you take the most radical of views regarding this doctrine, you get the seventh language being English, the seventh translation being the KJV, and the seventh KJV being that of the PCE. However, this argument is a gross twisting of the Scriptures. I am a King James onlyist, so I write this as an admonition to brethren who use, and have used, this bad argument for our English Bible. There are a couple of ...

The Apocrypha in the KJV?

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It is often asserted against King James onlyism that the KJV originally included the Apocrypha. And while this is true, it ignores several key points about what we actually believe, the history of the KJV, other Protestant translations, and what the translators themselves thought of the Apocrypha. Ironically, the inverse of this argument is used by Catholics who claim the King James Bible "removed" seven books of the Bible. The Bible Text is Perfect Firstly, King James onlyists believe the Bible text of the KJV to be perfect. We do not attach infallibility to anything else. The 1611 had its preface, table of contents, several charts, etc., yet we do not hold those to be infallible—it is no different in the case of the Deuterocanon. Even modern printings of various Bible translations are bound with dictionaries, maps, or even concordances in the back. Just because extra-biblical content is printed and contained within the same binding as the scriptural text does not mean that...